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      (23) The deliberate speculation of the term Proto-Indo-European
      language; and Sanskrit 
      morphology.
       
         
       It is an open fact that the phonology (the speech sound) 
      and morphology (the science of word formation) of the Sanskrit language is 
      entirely different from all of the languages of the world. There is no 
      comparison in any way. 
      1. The sound of each of the 36 consonants and the 16 
      vowels of Sanskrit are fixed and precise since the very beginning. It was 
      never changed, altered, improved or modified. So all the words of the 
      Sanskrit language always had the same pronunciation as they have today. 
      There was never any sound shift or change in the pronunciation of any word 
      in the history of the Sanskrit language. The reason is its absolute 
      perfection by its own nature and formation, because it was the first 
      language of the world.  
      2. Its morphology of word formation is unique and of 
      its own kind where a word is formed from a tiny seed root (called dhatu) 
      in a precise grammatical order which has been the same since the very 
      beginning.  
      3. There has never been any kind, class or nature of 
      change in the science of the Sanskrit grammar as it is seen in other 
      languages of the world as they passed through one stage to another. 
      4. The perfect form of the Vedic Sanskrit language had 
      already existed thousands of years earlier even before the infancy of the 
      earliest prime languages of the world like Greek, Hebrew and Latin etc. 
      5. When a language is spoken by unqualified people the 
      pronunciation of the word changes to some extent; and when these words 
      travel by word of mouth to another region of the land, with the gap of 
      some generations, it permanently changes its form and shape to some 
      extent. Just like the Sanskrit word matri, with a long ‘a’ and soft 
      ‘t,’ became mater in Greek and mother in English. The last 
      two words are called the ‘apbhransh’ of the original Sanskrit word
      ‘matri.’ Such apbhranshas of Sanskrit words are found in all 
      the languages of the world and this situation itself proves that Sanskrit 
      was the mother language of the world. 
      Now I will give you one example of a famous verse from 
      the very ancient literature, the Vedas. 
      
        
      It means, “Those who are the 
      worshippers of only materialism enter into darkness.” In this sentence 
      yah (those) and vishanti (enter) are the pronoun and the 
      main verb. The word vishanti is formed of the root word (dhatu)
      vish and it has 90 single word forms, like, vishati, vishatah, 
      vishanti, to be used in its ten tense modes. These word formations of 
      nouns, pronouns and verbs were always in perfect grammatical form since 
      thousands and thousands of years and they are still the same without any 
      change, and will remain the same in future. A person living in Iceland or 
      New Zealand, if he knows the Sanskrit language, he will use the same words 
      because there is no change of dialect or inflection in Sanskrit language.
      Time and space make no difference in the representation of Sanskrit 
      language. 
      
      Considering all the five points as explained above and 
      seeing the example of the ancient Vedic verse, it is quite evident that 
      Sanskrit was the first and the original language of the world; and the 
      western linguists of the earlier times also believed in this fact. It is 
      so obvious that anyone who learns Sanskrit grammar knows these facts. But 
      still, these 18th and 19th century linguists created a term 
      ‘Proto-Indo-European’ for the original parent language which was assumed 
      to be spoken about 5,000 years ago by the nomads who assumingly roamed 
      around near the southeast European plains. They further assumed that from 
      the speech of those earlier nomads came the languages of the world like 
      Greek, Latin, Slavic, Russian, Germanic and Indo-Iranian etc., whereas the 
      Sanskrit language came from the Indo-Iranian group. 
      
      Now the question is, when an original parent language, 
      Sanskrit, is already in existence, why was the ‘Proto-Indo-European’ term 
      designed, and, instead of deriving the ancestral relationship of the 
      languages of the world with the Sanskrit language through the findings of 
      the Sanskrit apbhransh in them, why was an inferior parallelism of 
      the Sanskrit language drawn along with the Greek and Latin languages? 
      Although the fact was that certain daily usable words and the numerals, 
      like, trya, sapt, panch (three, seven, five), and the 
      religious stories of India that travelled to the Middle East and to Greece 
      were adopted in their language and culture, that’s how certain Sanskrit 
      apbhransh words were found in Greek, its descendent Latin and the 
      Germanic languages. But this fact was altered and mutilated by vigorously 
      constructing extensive arguments of their own choice, not by one or two 
      linguists, but by a number of well known linguists, and that also for 84 
      years of day and night efforts from Jones (1786) to Neogrammarians (1870).
      Isn’t it laughable, and at the same time a big black hole in the 
      history of linguistics? Why did they do so, and create such a monstrous 
      lie that confused and misled the sincere intelligentsia of the whole 
      world? (This will be elaborated in articles
      32, 33) Now we should 
      know that apart from the Sanskrit language there is no such thing as 
      Proto-Indo-European language as it is self-evident from the findings 
      of Sanskrit apbhransh words in all the existing Asian and European 
      languages. 
      
        
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